At first hearing, his statement sounds very strange. So, I did a google search first to see what people had to say about this, and hopefully find the reference. Well, it comes from Psalm 138:2. And I'm going to have to post it in several translations, because there seems to be some textual variety going on.
First, the KJV:
I will worship toward thy holy temple, and praise thy name for thy lovingkindness and for thy truth: for thou hast magnified thy word above all thy name.
This actually says that He magnified his Word above His name, not Himself, but that is arguably the same thing.
But I immediately discovered that the ESV is slightly different:
I bow down toward your holy temple
and give thanks to your name for your steadfast love and your faithfulness,
for you have exalted above all things
your name and your word.
The translators of the ESV included a footnote: "Or you have exalted your word above all your name"
Let's look at some other versions. . . NASB:
I will bow down toward Your holy temple
And give thanks to Your name for Your lovingkindness and Your truth;
For You have magnified Your word according to all Your name.
The plot thickens!! This is different even than the previous two!
I looked at the NIV just for kicks, and it was similar to ESV. NKJV was the same as KJV.
Let's see what Jewish Hebrew translators have to say (this is from chabad.org, by the way):
I shall prostrate myself toward Your holy Temple, and I shall give thanks to Your name for Your kindness and for Your truth, for You magnified Your word over all Your names.
That's very similar to KJV, actually. And God does have several names.
So, I'm discovering more questions than answers, like why are there three different variants? And what does it mean anyway? The way the ESV renders it seems very straitforward and non-controversial: His name and His Word are given equal standing. But the NASB? What does it mean for Him to magnify His word according to His name?
It so happens that the Jews and the KJVers seem to actually agree about something in this text. I'm trying to consider what this rendering might mean. Is God saying that His word is more important than His person? Or just His name (although His name is often used as a designation of His person)? The only thing I am thinking of is that no man has seen God, or can see God, therefore He uses His word to reveal Himself to man. That makes His word of extreme priority in His self-disclosure. It is also true that Messiah is the Word, according to John 1, and "God has highly exalted him and bestowed on him the name that is above every name" (Phil 2:9). That's interesting. What name is Paul refering to? How come we never talk about that?
So, I have no conclusions. Only more questions. I also did a google search of the text to see what people said about it. I only looked a little, but I found that people mostly were using it as a proof text for one thing or another, without really going into detail about what it meant. On the side, I found this highly amusing blog article in which the author rebuts a KJV-only person who uses Psalm 138:2 as a proof-text. Check it out, it's fun.
Anyway, if anyone has insight to share I would be glad to hear it. Don't worry, I won't be up all night thinking about this, I'm just curious. The strange thing is that while I should be frustrated with God's word for not being plain and simple, I think I have more respect for it. And I think I've learned something. . . maybe.
Now that I have spent over an hour on this mystery, I had better do some work on my "Theme and Variations" composition. I find it incredible that at a Bible College I have not had much time for theological musings recently. How sad.